1) The first to come up with the idea of Constituent Assembly for India was

a) Jawaharlal Nehru

b) Ambedkar

c) S.A.Dange

d) M.N.Roy

2) The Constitution Assembly was constituted in November 1946 under the scheme formulated by

a) August Offer

b) Cripps Proposals

c) Cabinet Mission Plan

d) Mountbatten Plan

3) The Constituent Assembly held its first meeting on

a) 6-Nov-46

b) 9-Nov-46

c) 6-Dec-46

d) December 9,1946

4) Who was elected as the temporary President of Constituent Assembly?

a) Sachchidanand Sinha

b) Hc Mukherjee

c) Rajendra Prasad

d) Sa Dange

5) Who was appointed as the Constitutional advisor to the Constituent Assembly?

a) Ambedkar

b) Bn Rau

c) Hc Mukherjee

d) N Gopalaswamy Ayyangar

6) Who was the Chairman of the Union Powers Committee appointed by Constituent Assembly?

a) Jawaharlal Nehru

b) Vallabhbhai Patel

c) Km Munshi

d) Rajendra Prasad

7) Who was the Chairman of the Committee for Negotiating with States appointed by the Constituent Assembly?

a) Km Munshi

b) Vallabhbhai Patel

c) Rajendra Prasad

d) Jawaharlal Nehru

8)

Which of the following pairs are correctly matched ? Parts of the Constitution Subjects Dealt

1.Part III - Fundamental Rights

2.Part VI - The State Governments

3.Part XV - Tribunals

4.Part XXI - Temporary Provisions

a) 1 And 2 Only

b) 1 And 3 Only

c) 1,2 And 4 Only

d) 1,2,3 And 4

9) The advisory jurisdiction of the Supreme Court was borrowed from the Constitution of

a) Canada

b) Usa

c) Uk

d) France

10)

The 71st Amendment of the Constituion (1992) added which of the following languages to the Eighth Schedule?

1.Konkani   2.Sindhi   3.Nepali   4.Manipuri 

a) 1 And 2 Only

b) 1,2 And 4 Only

c) 1,3 And 4 Only

d) 1,2,3 And 4

11) In which one of the following case the Supreme Court introduced the basic structure of the Constituion concept?

a) Golaknath Case

b) Kesavananda Bharati Case

c) Minerva Mills Case

d) Champakam Dorairjan Case

12) Who described Indian Constitution as "co-operative federalism"?

a) Kc Wheare

b) Morris Jones

c) Granville Austin

d) Ivor Jennings

13) With respect to the description of the Indian Constitution by various legal experts, which of the following pairs are correctly matched ?

1.Quasi-federal - KC Wheare

2.Bargaining federalism - Morris Jones

3.Federation with a centralising tendency - Ivor Jennings

a) 3 Only

b) 1 And 3 Only

c) 2 And 3 Only

d) 1,2 And 3

14) The Preamble to the Indian Constituion is based on the Objectives Resolution which was drafted by

a) Mahatma Gandhi

b) Ambedkar

c) Jawaharlal Nehru

d) Bn Rau

15) The Constitution of India was adopted on

a) 26-Nov-49

b) 9-Dec-49

c) 26-Jan-50

d) None Of The Above

16) The elections are to be on the basis of adult suffrage is provided in

a) Article 324

b) Article 325

c) Article 326

d) Article 327

17) The Preamble has been amended

a) Once

b) Twice

c) Thrice

d) None Of The Above

18) India became the member of United Nations in

a) 1945

b) 1950

c) 1960

d) 1992

19) The term secular was added to the preamble of the Constitution by

a) 1St Constitutional Amendment Act

b) 42Nd Constitutional Amendment Act

c) 44Th Constitutional Amendment Act

d) 73Rd Constitutional Amendment Act

20) The voting age was reduced from 21 years to 18 years by

a) 42Nd Constitutional Amendment Act

b) 44Th Constitutional Amendment Act

c) 61St Constitutional Amendment Act

d) 64Th Constitutional Amendment Act

21) With respect to States in India , Article 3 authorises the Parliament to

1.increase their area

2.diminish their area

3.alter their boundaries

4.alter their names

a) 1 And 2 Only

b) 1,2 And 3 Only

c) 1,2 And 4 Only

d) 1,2,3 And 4

22) The formation of new states in India is done by

a) Executive Resolution

b) Enacting A Law Through Simple Majority In Loksabha

c) Enacting A Law Through Simple Majority In Parliament

d) Enacting A Law Through Special Majority In Parliament

23) Which princely state was integrated with India through police action?

a) Junagarh

b) Hyderabad

c) Jammu & Kashmir

d) Rajkot

24) Which one of the following was the earliest to be appointed to look into the issue of reorganisation of states on linguistic basis?

a) Sk Dhar Commission

b) Jvp Committee

c) Fazl Ali Commission

d) Dinesh Goswami Committee

25) The first linguistic state Andhra was created in the year

a) 1950

b) 1951

c) 1953

d) 1956

26) Who was not part of the three - member States Reorganisation Commission appointed to decide on the reorganisation of states on linguistic basis?

a) Fazl Ali

b) Km Munshi

c) Hn Kunzru

d) Km Panikkar

27) Based on the recommendations of States Reorganisation Act (1956), 14 states were created. Which one of the following was not among them?

a) Madhya Pradesh

b) Himachal Pradesh

c) Assam

d) Punjab

28) Which one of the following provided for the establishment of Reserve Bank of India?

a) Indian Councils Act Of 1909

b) Government Of India Act Of 1919

c) Government Of India Act Of 1935

d) None Of The Above

29) The Fourth Schedule deals with

a) Autonomy Of Jammu And Kashmir

b) Allotment Of Seats In The Rajya Sabha

c) Land Reforms

d) Disqualification Of Members Of Parliament

30) The provision Procedure established by Law was borrowed from the Constituion of

a) Usa

b) Russia

c) Japan

d) Australia

31) Apart from the provision  By Birth, what are the other means of acquiring Indian citizenship?

1.By Descent

2.By Registration

3.By Naturalisation

4.By Incorporation of Territory

a) 1 Only

b) 1 And 3 Only

c) 1 And 2 Only

d) 1,2,3 And 4

32) Indian Citizen can loose his Citizenship by

1.Renunciation   2.Termination   3.Deprivation

a) 1 Only

b) 1 And 2 Only

c) 2 Only

d) 1,2 And 3

33) Which one of the following is known as the Magna Carta of India?

a) Preamble

b) Fundamental Rights

c) Directive Principles

d) Fundamental Duties

34) The Right to Property was deleted from the list of Fundamental Rights by

a) Executive Order

b) Act Of Parliament

c) Constitutional Amendment

d) Supreme Court Verdict

35) With respect to Fundamental Rights, consider the following statements :

1.Fundamental Rights are not available to foreigners.

2.Fundamental Rights are qualified.

3.Fundamental Rights are justiciable.

Which of the above statements are correct ?

a) 3 Only

b) 1 And 3 Only

c) 2 And 3 Only

d) 1,2 And 3

36) Which of the following are correctly matched ?

1.Equality of opportunity in public employment - Article 15

2.Abolition of untouchability - Article 16

3.Protection of life and personal liberty - Article 21

a) 3 Only

b) 1 And 2 Only

c) 2 And 3 Only

d) 1,2 And 3

37) Protection of language, script and culture of minorities is included in

a) Article 27

b) Article 28

c) Article 29

d) Article 30

38) Which one of the following deals with Preventive Detention?

a) Article 20

b) Article 21

c) Article 22

d) Article 23

39) Which amendment provided for the establishment of common High Court for two or more states?

a) 5Th Amendment Act ,1955

b) 7Th Amendment Act , 1956

c) 10Th Amendment Act , 1961

d) 15Th Amendment Act, 1963

40) The provision for Separate electorate for Muslims was provided in

a) Indian Councils Act Of 1909

b) Government Of India Act Of 1919

c) Government Of India Act Of 1935

d) None Of The Above

41) Which one of the following was considered by Dr Ambedkar as the most important Article of the Constitution?

a) Article 21

b) Article 32

c) Article 356

d) Article 368

42) Who can empower any court other than Supreme Court and High Courts to issue writs?

a) Supreme Court

b) President

c) Parliament

d) There Is No Such Provision In The Constitution

43) Which writ is considered as bulwark of individual liberty against arbitrary detention?

a) Habeas Corpus

b) Mandamus

c) Prohibition

d) Quo-Warranto

44) The writ of Mandamus can be issued to

1.Public Officials   2.Private individuals

a) 1 Only

b) 2 Only

c) Both 1 And 2

d) Neither 1 Nor 2

45) Consider the following statements :

1.The writ Certiorari means to be certified or to be informed.

2.The writ Certiorari is both preventive and curative.

a) 1 Only

b) 2 Only

c) Both1 And 2

d) Neither 1 Nor 2

46) Who is empowered by the Constitution to restrict the fundamental rights of members of armed forces and police forces?

a) Parliament

b) President

c) Supreme Court

d) There Is No Such Provision In The Constitution

47) The first Backward Classes Commission (1953) was headed by

a) Kaka Kalelkar

b) Indrajit Gupta

c) K Santhanam

d) Rajamannar

48) Which one of the following is not a subject in the State List?

a) Public Order

b) Betting And Gambling

c) Taxes On Mineral Rights

d) Prevention Of Cruelty To Animals

49) Which amendment made it compulsory for the President to give his assent to a Constitutional Amendment Bill?

a) 21St Amendment Act

b) 24Th Amendment Act

c) 27Th Amendment Act

d) 28Th Amendment Act

50) Which of the following provided for the setting up of Federal Court?

a) Indian Councils Act Of 1909

b) Government Of India Act Of 1919

c) Government Of India Act Of 1935

d) None Of The Above

51) Which of the following was described by Ambedkar as novel features of Indian Constitution?

a) Fundamental Rights

b) Directive Principles

c) Fundamental Duties

d) Writ Jurisdiction

52) Article 40 of Directive Principles deals with

a) Promotion Of Cottage Industries

b) Organisation Of Village Panchayats

c) Promotion Of Educational Interests Of Weaker Sections

d) Prevention Of Concentration Of Wealth

53) Which of the following Directive Principles are considered as Liberal-Intellectual Principles ? 

1.Uniform Civil Code

2.Protection of environment

3.Participation of workers in the management of industries

4.Separation of judiciary from the executive

a) 1 And 4 Only

b) 1 And 3 Only

c) 1,2 And 4 Only

d) 1,2,3 And 4

54) Equal pay for equal work for men and women is included in the

a) Article 38

b) Article 39

c) Article 41

d) Article 42

55) Which one of the following is incorrect regarding Directive Principles?

a) They Are Positive In Nature.

b) Their Objective Is To Create A Socio-Economic Democracy.

c) They Are Justiciable.

d) They Are Borrowed From The Irish Constitution.

56) The Fundamental Duties were incorporated into the Constitution based on the recommendations of

a) Dinesh Goswami Committee

b) Swaran Singh Committee

c) Santhanam Committee

d) Abid Hussain Committee

57) Fundamental Duties became part of the Constitution in the year

a) 1965

b) 1971

c) 1976

d) 1978

58) Which part of the Constitution deals with Fundamental Duties?

a) Part Iv

b) Part Iv A

c) Part V

d) Part V A

59) Which amendment incorporated Goa, Daman and Diu in the Indian Union?

a) 11Th Amendment Act

b) 12Th Amendment Act

c) 13Th Amendment Act

d) 14Th Amendment Act

60) Economic and Social Planning is included in the

a) Union List

b) State List

c) Concurrent List

d) None Of The Above

61) Consider the following statements :

1.Fundamental Duties are confined to citizens only.

2.Fundamental Dutied are non-justiciable.

Which of the above are correct ?

a) 1 Only

b) 2 Only

c) Both 1 And 2

d) Neither 1 Nor 2

62) Which one of the following is not a fundamental duty enshrined in Article 51 A?

a) Promote Spirit Of Common Brotherhood

b) Develop Scientific Temper

c) Payment Of Taxes

d) Protect Natural Environment

63) An amendment of the Constitution can be initiated only by the introduction of a bill in

1.Lok Sabha       2.Rajya Sabha

a) 1 Only

b) 2 Only

c) Both 1 And 2

d) Neither 1 Nor 2

64) Which of the following is incorrect regarding the amendment of the Constitution?

a) The Bill For The Amendment Of The Constitution Requires Prior Permission Of The President.

b) The Bill Must Be Passed In Each House Of The Parliament By A Special Majority.

c) There Is No Provision For Joint Sitting Of Two Houses Of Parliament In Case Of Disagreement .

d) The President Cannot Withhold His Assent To The Bill.

65) The amendments to which of the following provisions in the Constitution are outside the scope of Article 368 ?

1.Creation of Legislative Councils in states.

2.Delimitation of Constituencies.

3.Quorum in Parliament.

a) 1 Only

b) 1 And 2 Only

c) 3 Only

d) 1,2 And 3

66) The amendment of federal provisions of the Constitution requires ratification by the legislatures of

a) Half Of The States

b) One-Third Of The States

c) One-Fourth Of The States

d) One-Sixth Of The States

67) The amendments to which of the following provisions in the Constitution requires the consent of States ?

1.Election of the President

2.Fundamental Rights

3.Supreme Court

4.Representation of states in Parliament

a) 4 Only

b) 1,2 And 4

c) 1,3 And 4

d) 1,2,3 And 4

68) Which Supreme Court Judge of India (later Cheif Justice) played an important role in introducing Public Interest Litigation?

a) M Patanjali Sastri

b) An Ray

c) Pn Bhagwati

d) Ranganath Misra

69) Procedure for amendment of the Constituiton was borrowed form the Constitution of

a) Australia

b) South Africa

c) Ireland

d) Usa

70) Part XVII of the Constitution deals with

a) Tribunals

b) Emergency Provisions

c) Srevices Under Union And States

d) Official Language

71) Who described the Parliamentary system as "cabinet system"?

a) Av Dicey

b) Ivor Jennings

c) Kc Wheare

d) Morris Jones

72) Which article deals with "Collective Responsibility"?

a) Article 63

b) Article 75

c) Article 76

d) Article 78

73) The Oath of Secrecy to the Union Ministers is administered by the

a) President

b) Chief Justice Of India

c) Prime Minister

d) Loksabha Speaker/Rajyasabha Chairman

74) Which of the following is not a characteristic feature of Federal Government?

a) Dual Government

b) Rigid Constitution

c) No Division Of Powers

d) Written Constitution

75) The Indian federal system is based on

a) American Model

b) Canadian Model

c) British Model

d) Australian Model

76) Which one of the following countries has federal government?

a) Uk

b) France

c) Japan

d) Switzerland

77) Who is empowered to make laws with respect to residuary subjects in India?

a) President

b) Parliament

c) Union Cabinet

d) Respective State Governments

78) Which Article includes the provision that the Parliament can make laws on matters in the Sate List for implementing the international treaties?

a) Article 250

b) Article 251

c) Article 252

d) Article 253

79) Which one of the following subject is not in the Union List?

a) Census

b) Insurance

c) Education

d) Organisation Of High Courts

80) Which Act created the office of Secretary of State for India?

a) Charter Act Of 1853

b) Government Of India Act Of 1858

c) Indian Councils Act Of 1861

d) Indian Councils Act Of 1909

81) Sarkaria Commission was a three  member Commission on Centre-State relations. Apart from RS Sarkaria, who were the other members ?

1.B Sivaraman   2.SR Sen   3.Sumitra KulKarni

a) 1 And 2

b) 1 And 3

c) 2 And 3

d) None Of The Above

82) Which of the following are correctly matched ?

1.Article 262 - Adjudication of inter-state water disputes

2.Article 263 - Inter-State Council 3.Article 267 - Contingency Fund

a) 1 And 2 Only

b) 2 Only

c) 3 Only

d) 1,2 And 3

83) The VP Singh government appointed the inter-state council in the year

a) 1989

b) 1990

c) 1991

d) 1992

84) Who is the Chairman of the Zonal Councils?

a) Prime Minister

b) Home Minister

c) Finance Minister

d) Cabinet Secretary

85) The proclamation of National Emergency must be approved by the Parliament within

a) Six Weeks

b) One Month

c) Two Months

d) 14 Days

86) A resolution of disapproval of National Emergency needs to be passed by the 1.Lok Sabha 2.Rajya Sabha

a) 1 Only

b) 2 Only

c) Both 1 And 2

d) Neither 1 Nor 2

87) Till now National Emergency has been declared

a) Once

b) Twice

c) Thrice

d) Four Times

88) Which amendment made the President bound by the advise of the Cabinet?

a) 38Th Amendment Act

b) 39Th Amendment Act

c) 42Nd Amendment Act

d) 44Th Amendment Act

89) Which part of the Constitution deals with Union Territories?

a) Part V

b) Part Vi

c) Part Vii

d) Part Viii

90) Which amendment replaced internal disturbance by armed rebellion with respect to National Emergency?

a) 42Nd Amendment Act

b) 43Rd Amendment Act

c) 44Th Amendment Act

d) None Of The Above

91) The maximum period prescribed for operation of Presidents Rule (Article 356) is

a) Six Months

b) 1 Year

c) 3 Years

d) There Is No Maximum Period

92) The Presidents Rule was imposed for the first time in which state?

a) Kerala

b) Punjab

c) Tamil Nadu

d) Uttar Pradesh

93) Ambedkar wanted which article to remain as a "dead-letter"?

a) Article 352

b) Article 355

c) Article 356

d) Article 360

94) What is the maximum period Financial Emergency can remain in operation?

a) Six Months

b) 1 Year

c) 3 Years

d) There Is No Maximum Period

95) Which of the following statement/s is/are correct ?

1.The Presidential satisfaction in proclaiming financial emergency is subject to judicial review.

2.The proclamation of financial emergency needs to approved by Parliament within two months from the date of its proclamation.

a) 1 Only

b) 2 Only

c) Both 1 And 2

d) Neither 1 Nor 2

96) Which of the following statements are correct ?

1.Article 370 grants special status to Jammu and Kashmir.

2.Jammu and Kashmir is the only state to enjoy special status.

a) 1 Only

b) 2 Only

c) Both 1 And 2

d) Neither 1 Nor 2

97) According to J&K Constitution, which of the following is/are official language/s?

a) Urdu

b) Hindi

c) Ladakhi

d) Both A And C

98) The Jurisdiction of Parliament with respect to J&K is limited to the matters in

1.Union List   2.Concurrent List   3.State List

a) 1 Only

b) 1 And 2 Only

c) 1 And 3 Only

d) 1,2 And 3

99) Which amendment led to the provision of electoral college for the election of Vice-President?

a) 10Th Amendment Act

b) 11Th Amendment Act

c) 12Th Amendment Act

d) 15Th Amendment Act

100) Which one of the following features was not borrowed from the Australian Constitution?

a) Concurrent List

b) Freedom Of Trade And Commerce

c) Joint Sitting Of Two Houses Of Parliament

d) Election Of Members Of Rajya Sabha

101) In order to be eligible for election as President, he/she should have completed

a) 25 Years Of Age

b) 30 Years Of Age

c) 35 Years Of Age

d) 40 Years Of Age

102) Which article deals with procedure for impeachment of the President?

a) Article 59

b) Article 60

c) Article 61

d) Article 62

103) Which one of the following is incorrect regarding the impeachment of President?

a) The President Can Be Removed For Violation Of The Constitution.

b) The Impeachment Charges Against President Can Be Initiated By Either House Of Parliament.

c) The Impeachment Charges Should Be Signed By 50 Members Of The House That Framed The Charges.

d) A Notice Of 14 Days Should Also Be Given To The President.

104) Which article deals with ordinance - making power of the president?

a) Article 121

b) Article 123

c) Article 131

d) Article 133

105) Which of the following are correct ?

1.The Ordinance -making power of President is not a parallel power of legislation.

2.The Ordinance promulgated by President can be retrospective.

a) 1 Only

b) 2 Only

c) Both 1 And 2

d) Neither 1 Nor 2

106) Which of the following are correct regarding Pardoning power of the President (Article 72) ?

1.The Pardoning power should be exercised by the President on the advice of the Union Cabinet.

2.The Pardoning power of the President is subject to judicial review.

a) 1 Only

b) 2 Only

c) Both 1 And 2

d) Neither 1 Nor 2

107) Which of the following have occupied the office of President more than once?

a) Rajendra Prasad

b) S Radhakrishnan

c) Zakir Hussain

d) None Of The Above

108) The office of Vice-President of India is modelled on the lines of office of Vice-president of

a) France

b) Usa

c) South Africa

d) Australia

109) Which of the following is correct ?

1.The Vice-president acts as the ex-officio Chairman of Rajya Sabha.

2.No ground has been mentioned in the Constitution for the removal of Vice-President.

a) 1 Only

b) 2 Only

c) Both 1 And 2

d) Neither 1 Nor 2

110) Next to Uttar Pradesh, which states occupy second and third position with respect to number of seats in Lok Sabha?

a) Maharashtra And Bihar

b) Maharashtra And West Bengal

c) Maharashtra And Andhrapradesh

d) Bihar And Andhrapradesh

111) Which of the following statements is/are correct ?

1.The Constitution does not provide specific procedure for the selection and appointment of Prime Minister.

2.The salary and allowances of Prime Minister are determined by the Parliament.

a) 1 Only

b) 2 Only

c) Both 1 And 2

d) Neither 1 Nor 2

112) Which Article deals with the communication between President and Prime Minister regarding the administration?

a) Article 76

b) Article 77

c) Article 78

d) Article 79

113) Who is the chairman of National Integration Council?

a) President

b) Prime Minister

c) Home Minister

d) Retired Supreme Court Judge

114) A Union Minister has the

1.right to speak in both the Houses of Parliament

2.right to vote in both the Houses of Parliament Which of the above statements are correct ?

a) 1 Only

b) 2 Only

c) Both 1 And 2

d) Neither 1 Nor 2

115) Which of the following served as Deputy Prime Minister ?

1.Vallabhbhai Patel   2.Morarji Desai   3.Indira Gandhi

a) 1 Only

b) 2 Only

c) 1 And 2

d) 1,2 And 3

116) Who is the Chairman of the Economic Affairs Committee?

a) Prime Minister

b) Home Minister

c) Finance Minister

d) Commerce Minister

117) Who is the head of the civil service?

a) Cabinet Secretary

b) Principal Secretary To Prime Minister

c) Secretary, Ministry Of Personnel

d) None Of The Above

118) Which Act laid the foundation of Central Administration?

a) Regulating Act Of 1773

b) Pitts India Act Of 1784

c) Charter Act Of 1833

d) Government Of India Act Of 1858

119) Forms of Affirmations is included in

a) First Schedule

b) Second Schedule

c) Third Schedule

d) Fourth Schedule

120) The power of President to consult Supreme Court is the subject matter of

a) Article 140

b) Article 141

c) Article 142

d) Article 143

121) The maximum strength of Rajya Sabha is fixed at

a) 250

b) 248

c) 245

d) 243

122) The maximum strength of Lok Sabha is fixed at

a) 552

b) 550

c) 545

d) 543

123) The Rajya Sabha was established in the year

a) 1948

b) 1950

c) 1951

d) 1952

124) The disqualification of member of Parliament are laid down in the

1.Constitution   2.Representation of People Act (1951)

a) 1 Only

b) 2 Only

c) Both 1 And 2

d) Neither 1 Nor 2

125) Which of the following are correct ?

1.To contest Lok Sabha, one should not be less than 30 years of age.

2.To contest Rajya Sabha , one should not be less than 35 years of age.

a) 1 Only

b) 2 Only

c) Both 1 And 2

d) Neither 1 Nor 2

126) The seat of member of a Parliament can be declared vacant if he is absent from the meetings of the respective House to which he belongs without permission for a period of

a) 30 Days

b) 60 Days

c) 6 Weeks

d) 90 Days

127) The date of election of Lok Sabha Speaker is fixed by

a) Parliament

b) President

c) Cheif Justice Of India

d) Speaker Of The Previous Loksabha

128) Consider the following functionaries :

1.Cabinet Secretary

2.Chief Election Commissioner

3.Cheif Justice of India

4.Union Cabinet Ministers

Their correct sequence, in the Order of Precedence is :

a) 4-3-2-1

b) 3-4-2-1

c) 3-2-4-1

d) 4-2-3-1

129) Which Schedule of the Constitution needs to be amended, if a new state is to be created?

a) First

b) Second

c) Third

d) Fourth

130) Which amendment made elementary education a fundamental right?

a) 65Th Amendment Act

b) 71St Amendment Act

c) 86Th Amendment Act

d) 87Th Amendment Act

131) Who presides over the joint sitting of both houses of Parliament , if Speaker is absent?

a) Chairman, Rajya Sabha

b) Deputy Speaker, Lok Sabha

c) Person Appointed By President

d) Person Appointed By Loksabha

132) The salary and allowance of Speaker is

1.fixed by the Parliament

2.charged on the Consolidated Fund of India

Which of the above are correct ?

a) 1 Only

b) 2 Only

c) Both 1 And 2

d) Neither 1 Nor 2

133) The Secretary-General of LokSabha is appointed by

a) President

b) Parliament

c) Speaker

d) Upsc

134) Which of the statements are correct ?

1.The President summons each House of the Parliament.

2.The Parliament should meet atleast twice a year.

a) 1 Only

b) 2 Only

c) Both 1 And 2

d) Neither 1 Nor 2

135) The termination of sitting of a Parliament for an indefinite period is known as

a) Adjournment

b) Dissolution

c) Prorogation

d) Adjournment Sine Die

136) Which of the following are correct ?

1.Zero Hour is not mentioned in the Rules of Procedure.

2.Zero Hour is an Indian innovation and exist as a device of Parliamentary Proceedings since 1962.

a) 1 Only

b) 2 Only

c) Both 1 And 2

d) Neither 1 Nor 2

137) Which of the following are correct ?

1.The reasons for adopting Censure motion need not be stated in the LokSabha.

2.Censure motion can be moved against individual minister only.

a) 1 Only

b) 2 Only

c) Both 1 And 2

d) Neither 1 Nor 2

138) Which Article deals with Money Bill?

a) Article 108

b) Article 110

c) Article 111

d) Article 112

139) The Ninth Schedule to the Indian Constitution was added by

a) First Amendment

b) Ninth Amendment

c) Forty Second Amendment

d) Forty Fourth Amendment

140) Who among the following was never the Lok Sabha Speaker?

a) Hukam Singh

b) Baliram Bhagat

c) Neelam Sanjiva Reddy

d) Ashok Desai

141) Which of the following statements are correct ?

1.Money Bill can be introduced only in the LokSabha.

2.Prior recommendation of President is not required for introducing Money Bill.

a) 1 Only

b) 2 Only

c) Both 1 And 2

d) Neither 1 Nor 2

142) The joint sitting of two Houses of Parliament is the subject matter of

a) Article 102

b) Article 105

c) Article 107

d) Article 108

143) Which of the following pairs are correctly matched ?

1.Article 112 - Annual Financial Statement

2.Article 169 - State Legislative Councils

3.Article 223 - Appointment of District Judges

a) 1 And 2 Only

b) 1 Only

c) 1 And 3 Only

d) 1,2 And 3

144) Which one of the following is considered to be a blank cheque given to the Executive by LokSabha?

a) Vote On Account

b) Vote Of Credit

c) Token Grant

d) Excess Grant

145) Who is empowered to enlarge the jurisdiction of Supreme Court with respect to any matter included in the Union List of legislative powers?

a) President

b) Cheif Justice Of India

c) Parliament

d) President In Consultation With Cheif Justice Of India

146) The Chairman of which one of the following committee is selected from the Opposition?

a) Public Accounts Committee

b) Estimates Committee

c) Committee On Public Undertakings

d) Business Advisory Committee

147) Which one of the following committee was set up in 1950 on the recommendation of John Mathai committee?

a) Public Accounts Committee

b) Estimates Committee

c) Committee On Public Undertakings

d) None Of The Above

148) Which among the following states has the highest number of seats in RajyaSabha?

a) Bihar

b) West Bengal

c) Odisha

d) Tamil Nadu

149) The first Finance Minister of Independent India was

a) Rk Shanmukham

b) John Mathai

c) Cd Deshmukh

d) Tt Krishnamachari

150) Tenth Schedule also known as Anti-defection Act was added by

a.)48th Amendment Act   b.)50th Amendment Act   b.)51st Amendment Act   d.)52nd Amendment Act

a) 48Th Amendment Act

b) 50Th Amendment Act

c) 51St Amendment Act

d) 52Nd Amendment Act

151) The maximum strength of Supreme Court Judges (including Cheif Justice) at Present is

a) 28

b) 29

c) 30

d) 31

152) As per the Constitution the minimum age for appointment as a judge of Supreme Court is

a) 35 Years

b) 40 Years

c) 45 Years

d) None Of The Above

153) Which of the following are correct ?

1.The writ jurisdiction of High Court is wider than that of Supreme Court.

2.The Parliament can confer on Supreme Court the power to issue writs for other purposes.

a) 1 Only

b) 2 Only

c) Both 1 And 2

d) Neither 1 Nor 2

154) The phrase " Judicial Review " has been mentioned in

a) Article 12

b) Article 32

c) Article 226

d) None Of The Above

155) Which of the following have been Chief Justices of India ?

a.)Altamas Kabir   b.)S. Rajendra Babu   c.)Ramesh Chandra Lahoti   d.)T.S. Thakur

a) 1 And 4 Only

b) 1,2 And 3 Only

c) 2 And 4 Only

d) 1,2,3 And 4

156) Which one of the following provided for the appointment of same person as Governor for two or more states ?

a) 7Th Amendment Act

b) 14Th Amendment Act

c) 21St Amendment Act

d) 28Th Amendment Act

157) Which of the following qualifications are laid down in the Constitution for the appointment of a person as Governor ?

1.He should have completed 35 years of age.

2.He should be an outsider i.e. he should not hail from the state where he is appointed.

a) 1 Only

b) 2 Only

c) Both 1 And 2

d) Neither 1 Nor 2

158) Which of the following are correctly matched ?

1.Article 155 - Appointment of Governor

2.Article 157 - Qualifications for appointment as Governor

3.Article 162 - Pardoning power of Governor

a) 1 Only

b) 1 And 2 Only

c) 2 And 3 Only

d) 1,2 And 3

159) The Law Commission of India is usually appointed for a period of

a) 2 Years

b) 3 Years

c) 4 Years

d) 5 Years

160) The Law Commission of India is established by

a) Constitution

b) An Act Of Parliament

c) An Order Of Central Government

d) Convention

161) The duty of Chief Minister to communicate the decisions of Council of Ministers to Governor is the subject matter of

a) Article 163

b) Article 164

c) Article 167

d) Article 168

162) The office of Chief Secretary was created by

a) Canning

b) Wellesley

c) William Bentick

d) Dalhousie

163) Which of the following state does not have a Bicameral legislature?

a) Uttar Pradesh

b) Bihar

c) Maharashtra

d) Tamil Nadu

164) The maximum strength of State Legislative Assembly is fixed at

a) 500

b) 400

c) 368

d) 300

165) Which of the following are correct ?

1.The maximum strength of State Legislative Council is fixed at one-third of the total strength of the State Legislative Assembly.

2.The minimum strength of State Legislative Council is fixed at 40.

a) 1 Only

b) 2 Only

c) Both 1 And 2

d) Neither 1 Nor 2

166) The judges of a High Court are appointed by

a) President

b) Chief Justice Of India

c) Governor

d) Chief Justice Of Particular High Court

167) Which of the following are correct ?

1.The writ jurisdiction of High Court is not exclusive.

2.The writ jurisdiction of High Court is part of the basic structure of Constitution.

a) 1 Only

b) 2 Only

c) Both 1 And 2

d) Neither 1 Nor 2

168) Which of the following are correctly matched ? Name of High Court Seat of High Court

1.Chhattisgarh - Bilaspur

2.Kerala - Ernakulam

3.Odisha - Cuttack

4.Uttarakhand - Dehradun

a) 1 And 2 Only

b) 3 Only

c) 1,2 And 4 Only

d) 1,2 And 3 Only

169) Which of the following work under the administrative control of Ministry of Personnel ?

1.Union Public Service Commission

2.Central Bureau of Investigation

3.Central Administrative Tribunal

a) 1 Only

b) 1 And 2 Only

c) 1 And 3 Only

d) 1,2 And 3

170) Department of Border Management comes under the

a) Ministry Of Defence

b) Ministry Of Home Affairs

c) Ministry Of Road Transport And Highways

d) Prime MinisterS Office

171) Which state was the first to establish Panchayati Raj?

a) Rajasthan

b) Odisha

c) Maharashtra

d) Karnataka

172) Which Committee recommended for the establishment of three-tier Panchayati Raj system?

a) Ashok Mehta Committee

b) Balwant Rai Mehta Committee

c) Gvk Rao Committee

d) Lm Singhvi Committee

173) Which Committee recommended compulsory powers of taxation for Panchayat Raj institutions?

a) Ashok Mehta Committee

b) Balwant Rai Mehta Committee

c) Santhanam Committee

d) None Of The Above

174) Which of the following statements are correct ?

1.Gram Sabha consist of all registered voters in the area of a Panchayat.

2.Gram Sabha is given constitutionl status by 73rd amendment act.

a) 1 Only

b) 2 Only

c) Both 1 And 2

d) Neither 1 Nor 2

175) Which of the following are correctly matched ?

1.Article 243 S - Wards Committees

2.Article 243 ZA - Finance Commission

3.Article 243 ZD - Committee for District Planning

a) 1 Only

b) 1 And 3 Only

c) 2 Only

d) 1,2 And 3

176) The Executiv e of Andaman and Nicobar Islands is

a) Chief Commisioner

b) Administrator

c) Lt. Governor

d) Governor

177) Which one of the following finds a mention in the Constitution?

a) Indian Forest Service

b) Indian Foreign Service

c) All-India Medical Service

d) All-India Judicial Service

178) Which of the following were related to Civil Services related reforms ?

1.Alagh Committee   2.Chagla Commission   3.Hota Committee

a) 1 Only

b) 1 And 3 Only

c) 2 And 3 Only

d) 1,2 And 3

179) Which Act introduced Dyarchy (dual scheme of governance)?

a) Government Of India Act , 1858

b) Government Of India Act, 1919

c) Government Of India Act, 1935

d) None Of The Above

180) Which Act Provided Special status to Delhi and renamed it as the National Capital Territory of Delhi?

a) 68Th Amendment Act

b) 69Th Amendment Act

c) 70Th Amendment Act

d) 71St Amendment Act

181) According to Fifth Schedule, who is empowered to declare an area as Scheduled Area?

a) President

b) Governor Of The Respective State

c) Central Government

d) Parliament

182) The 6th Schedule of the Constitution deals with administration of tribal areas in

a) Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura And Manipur

b) Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura And Mizoram

c) Assam,Meghalaya,Nagaland And Manipur

d) Assam,Meghalaya,Nagaland And Mizoram

183) Who headed the commission appointed in 1960 to look into the administration of Scheduled areas and welfare of the Scheduled tribes in the states?

a) Kothari

b) Dilip Singh Bhuria

c) Un Dhebar

d) Santhanam

184) The President appoints

1.Cheif Election Commissioner

2.Election Commissioners

3.Regional Election Commissioners

a) 1 Only

b) 1 And 2 Only

c) 1 And 3 Only

d) 1,2 And 3

185) The Cheif Election Commissioner holds office for a

a) Term Of 6 Years Or Till The Age Of 62 Years

b) Term Of 5 Years Or Till The Age Of 65 Years

c) Term Of 6 Years Or Till The Age Of 65 Years

d) Term Of 5 Years Or Till The Age Of 62 Years

186) Article 371 G deals with special provision with respect to the state of

a) Mizoram

b) Sikkim

c) Manipur

d) Nagaland

187) Bankruptcy and insolvency is included in the

a) Union List

b) State List

c) Concurrent List

d) None Of The Above

188) Among the following who occupies the highest position in the order of precedence?

a) Chairman, Upsc

b) Attorney General Of India

c) Deputy Speaker, Loksabha

d) Cheif Election Commissioner

189) Electronics Corporation of India Limited is under the

a) Ministry Of Science And Technology

b) Ministry Of Communications And Information &Technology

c) Department Of Atomic Energy

d) None Of The Above

190) Department of Jammu and Kashmir Affairs comes under the

a) Ministry Of Home Affairs

b) Ministry Of Defence

c) Prime MinisterS Office

d) Cabinet Secretariat

191) Who is authorised by the Constitution to determine the conditions of service of Chairman and members of UPSC?

a) President

b) Parliament

c) Central Government

d) None Of The Above

192) Union Public Service Commission is a

1.Central Recruiting agency   2.Central Personnel agency

a) 1 Only

b) 2 Only

c) Both 1 And 2

d) Neither 1 Nor 2

193) The Staff Seletion Commission was established in 1975 by

a) Constitutional Provision

b) An Act Of Parliament

c) An Order Of Central Government

d) None Of The Above

194) The chairman and members of State Public Service Commission hold office for a

a) Term Of 5 Years Or Till The Age Of 65 Years

b) Term Of 5 Years Or Till The Age Of 62 Years

c) Term Of 6 Years Or Till The Age Of 65 Years

d) Term Of 6 Years Or Till The Age Of 62 Years

195) The UPSC functions can be classified into

1.executive   2. regulatory   3.quasi-judicial

a) 1 Only

b) 1 And 2 Only

c) 2 And 3 Only

d) 1,2 And 3

196) The concept of Public Interest Litigation originated in

a) Usa

b) Canada

c) Uk

d) South Africa

197) Dinesh Goswami Committee was related to

a) Police Reforms

b) Electoral Reforms

c) Civil Service Reforms

d) Criminal Justice Reforms

198) Lokayukta was established first in the state of

a) Rajasthan

b) Madhya Pradesh

c) Maharashtra

d) Uttar Pradesh

199) The 98th Amendment Act deals with

a) Exchange Of Enclaves With Bangladesh

b) Formation Of National Judicial Appointments Commission

c) Functioning Of Co-Operatives

d) Development Of Hyderabad-Karnataka Region

200) National Authority for Chemical Weapons Convention is under the administrative control of

a) Cabinet Secretariat

b) Prime MinisterS Office

c) Department Of Atomic Energy

d) Ministry Of Defence

201) The Finance Commission consists of

a) Chairman And Two Members

b) Chairman And Three Members

c) Chairman And Four Members

d) Chairman And Five Members

202) Who was the Chairman of first Finance Commission?

a) Kc Neogy

b) Ak Chanda

c) Rajamannar

d) Kc Pant

203) Which of the following are correct ?

1.Finance Commission is a quasi-judicial body.

2.Chairman and members of Finance Commission are not eligible for reappointment.

a) 1 Only

b) 2 Only

c) Both 1 And 2

d) Neither 1 Nor 2

204) Which of the following are Constitutional bodies ?

1.National Commission for Scheduled Castes

2.National Commission for Scheduled Tribes

3.National Human Rights Commission

a) 1 And 2 Only

b) 3 Only

c) 1,2 And 3

d) None Of Them

205) National Commission for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes was bifurcated by which amendment?

a) 88Th Amendment Act

b) 89Th Amendment Act

c) 90Th Amendment Act

d) 91St Amendment Act

206) Which Article provides for the office of Comptroller and Auditor General of India?

a) Article 145

b) Article 146

c) Article 147

d) Article 148

207) Which of the following are correct ?

1.The CAG (Comptroller and Auditor General) holds office for a period of six years or until the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier. 2.The manner and grounds for removal of CAG is similar to the removal of judge of Supreme Court.

a) 1 Only

b) 2 Only

c) Both 1 And 2

d) Neither 1 Nor 2

208) Which of the following were the features of Government of India Act, 1919 ?

1.Bicameralism

2.Abolished Council of India

3.Grant of Franchise to limited number of people.

4.Created office of High commissioner for India in London.

a) 1 And 2 Only

b) 1,2 And 3 Only

c) 2,3 And 4 Only

d) 1,3 And 4 Only

209) The Principle of anonymity of civil servants goes with

a) Principle Of Neutrality

b) Principle Of Commitment

c) Principle Of Ministerial Responsibility

d) Principle Of Rationality

210) Which of the following rights of adivasis are recognized by the Panchayat Extension to Scheduled Areas (PESA) Act, 1996 ? 1.ownership of minor forest produce

2.management of minor water bodies

a) 1 Only

b) 2 Only

c) Both 1 And 2

d) Neither 1 Nor 2

211) The Comptroller and Auditor General acts as the guide, friend and philosopher of

a) Estimates Comiittee

b) General Purpose Committee

c) Public Accounts Committee

d) Joint Parliamentary Committee

212) Who was the first Comptroller and Auditor General of India?

a) Narhari Rao

b) Ak Chanda

c) Ranganathan

d) Ak Roy

213) The Comptroller and Auditor General is considered as the agent of

a) President

b) Prime Minister

c) Union Cabinet

d) Parliament

214) Which of the following are correct ?

1.Article 76 provides for the office of Attorney General for India.

2.Attorney General is the highest law officer in the country.

a) 1 Only

b) 2 Only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

215) Which of the following regarding Attorney General is correct ?

1.His term of office is fixed by the Constitution.

2.He has the right of audience in all courts within India.

3.He has the right to speak in both the Houses of Parliament.

a) 1 And 2 Only

b) 2 And 3 Only

c) 1 And 3 Only

d) 1,2 And 3

216) Which of the following are correct?

1.Article 165 provides for the office of Advocate General for the states.

2.The Advocate General of the State is appointed by the President.

a) 1 Only

b) 2 Only

c) Both 1 And 2

d) Neither 1 Nor 2

217) Which one of the following recommended Constitutional status for National Development Council?

a) Santhanam Committee

b) Sarkaria Commission

c) Kothari Committee

d) Bp Jeevan Reddy Commission

218) Which one of the following is incorrectly matched?

a) Articles Subject Matter

b) Article 86 - Special Address By The President

c) Article 93 - Speaker Of Loksabha

d) Article 112 - Annual Financial Statement

219) Which among the following was the first to recommend the institution of Lokpal?

a) National Police Commission

b) Commission On Centre-State Relations

c) Administrative Reforms Commission

d) Inter-State Council

220) National Green Tribunal Act (2010), draws inspiration from the Constitutional provision of

a) Article 12

b) Artcle 21

c) Article 46

d) Article 51 A

221) National Human Rights Commission (NHRC) was established by

a) Constitution

b) An Act Of Parliament

c) Executive Order

d) Resolution Of Cabinet Secretariat

222) The Chairperson of National Human Rights Commission should be

a) Retired Cheif Justice Of India

b) Judge Of Supreme Court

c) Judge Of Supreme Court Or High Court

d) Either A Or B

223) Which of the following regarding National Human Rights Commission (NHRC) is/are correct ?

1.NHRC consists of Chairman and four members.

2.The chairman and members hold office for a term of five years or until the age of 70 years, whichever is earlier.

a) 1 Only

b) 2 Only

c) Both 1 And 2

d) Neither 1 Nor 2

224) The Central Vigilance Commission (CVC) was set up on the recommendation of

a) Santhanam Committee

b) Sarkaria Commission

c) Administrative Reforms Commission

d) National Development Council

225) The Central Bureau of Investigation (1963) was set up by a resolution of the

a) Cabinet Secretariat

b) Prime MinisterS Office

c) Ministry Of Personnel

d) Ministry Of Home Affairs

226) Who is empowered by Article 323 A for the setting up of administrative tribunals for adjudication of disputes related to public servants?

a) President

b) Parliament

c) Supreme Court

d) None Of Them

227) Who is considered as the "Father of All-India Services"?

a) Jawaharlal Nehru

b) Subash Chandra Bose

c) Vallabhbhai Patel

d) Ambedkar

228) The correct chronology of following committees on civil service reforms :

1.Kothari Committee   2.Surinder Nath Committee   3.Satish Chandra Committee

a) 1/2/2003

b) 1/3/2002

c) 2/1/2003

d) 2/3/2001

229) Which of the following pairs are correctly matched ? Articles Subject Matter

1.Article 267 - Contingency Fund

2.Article 312 - All-India Services

3.Article 346 - Official Language of the Union

a) 2 Only

b) 1 And 3 Only

c) 1 And 2 Only

d) 1,2 And 3

230) Which of the following regarding Central Information commission is incorrect ?

1.It is a statutory body.

2.It was established in the year 2003.

3.The first Cheif Information Commissioner of India was Wajahat Habibullah.

a) 3 Only

b) 1 And 2 Only

c) 2 Only

d) 2 And 3 Only

231) The first Chairman of Administrative Reforms Commission (ARC ) was

a) K Hanumanthaiah

b) Morarji Desai

c) Jagjivan Ram

d) C Rangarajan

232) The main objective of State Directorate is

a) Policy Making

b) Policy Implementation

c) Policy Evaluation

d) Both A And B

233) The Speaker is the ex-officio Chairman of the

1.Committee on Government assurances

2.Rules Committee

a) 1 Only

b) 2 Only

c) Both 1 And 2

d) Neither 1 Nor 2

234) Who was the first person to have served as both an acting President and President of India?

a) Vv Giri

b) Mohammad Hidayatullah

c) Zail Singh

d) Zakir Hussain

235) Who selects the Cheif Secretary?

a) Cheif Minister

b) State Cabinet

c) Governor

d) President

236) Which of the following statements are correct ?

1.Hindi written in Devanagari script is the official language of the Union.

2.The official language for different States is not specified in the Constitution.

a) 1 Only

b) 2 Only

c) Both 1 And 2

d) Neither 1 Nor 2

237) Which of the following are correct ?

1.National Commission for Minorities was set up in the year 1993.

2.National Commission for Minorities is a statutory body.

a) 1 Only

b) 2 Only

c) Both 1 And 2

d) Neither 1 Nor 2

238) Who was the head of the National Commission to review the working of the Constitution?

a) Rs Sarkaria

b) Mn Venkatachaliah

c) Subash Kashyap

d) Lalit Mohan Sharma

239) 11th Schedule of the Constitution related to Panchayats contains

a) 18 Subjects

b) 21 Subjects

c) 27 Subjects

d) 29 Subjects

240) The post of Deputy Prime Minister

a) Is A Constitutional Post

b) Is A Statutory Post

c) Is By Convention

d) Is For Political Reasons

241) Who is hailed as father of local self-government in India?

a) William Bentick

b) Ripon

c) Mayo

d) Dalhousie

242) The powers and functions of Chief Secretary are provided by

a) Constitution

b) An Act Of Parliament

c) An Act Of State Legislature

d) Rules Of Business

243) Originally Indian Constitution had

a) 22 Parts, 395 Articles And 10 Schedules

b) 20 Parts, 395 Articles And 10 Schedules

c) 22 Parts, 395 Articles And 8 Schedules

d) 20 Parts, 395 Articles And 8 Schedules

244) In 1786, the first Board of Revenue was created in

a) Bengal

b) Madras

c) Bombay

d) United Provinces

245) Who is empowered to authorize withdrawal of funds from the Consolidated Fund of India?

a) President

b) Parliament

c) Finance Minister

d) Finance Secretary

246) The Directive Principles of State Policy are similar to the Instruments of Instructions included in the

a) Government Of India Act, 1858

b) Government Of India Act, 1935

c) Indian Independence Act, 1947

d) June 3Rd Plan

247) According to 73rd amendment, in case of dissolution of Panchayat before the expiry of five years, elections has to be held within a period

a) Of 6 Months

b) Of 3 Months

c) Decided By The State Election Commission

d) Decided By The Central Election Commission

248) The grounds of removal of Comptroller and Auditor General is similar to

a) Speaker Of Loksabha

b) Chairman Of Rajyasabha

c) Judge Of Supreme Court

d) None Of The Above

249) Which of the following is/are correctly matched ?

1.1858 Act - Secretary of State for India

2.1919 Act - Provincial Autonomy

3.1935 Act - Dyarchy at Centre

a) 1 Only

b) 1 and 3 Only

c) 3 Only

d) 1,2 and 3

250) Which of the following statements regarding Lok Adalat are correct ?

1.The award/decision made by Lok Adalat is deemed to be a decree of a civil court.

2.There is no appeal against the award/decision of the Lok Adalat.

3.There is no court fee payable when a matter is filed in a Lok Adalat.

a) 1 And 2 Only

b) 1 And 3 Only

c) 2 And 3 Only

d) 1,2 And3